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BISE Gujranwala · Class 12 · Biology

BISE Gujranwala · Class 12 · Biology · 2025 · First Annual · Group 1

2025 · First Annual

Transcribed from the identified examination paper. Check the board, session and course before use. SchoolOrbit is not affiliated with the issuing board.

Objective

Source code: 8461 · Printed marks: 17 · Time: 20 Minutes

You have four choices for each objective type question as A, B, C and D. The choice which you think is correct, fill that circle in front of the relevant question number. Use marker or pen to fill in the circles. Cutting or filling two or more circles will result zero mark in that question.

OBJECTIVE

  1. Q1(1)

    How many molecules of Ammonia are required to form one molecule of urea?

    • (A)

      1

    • (B)

      2

    • (C)

      3

    • (D)

      4

  2. Q1(2)

    Which of these are cylindrical and exist as bundle caps?

    • (A)

      Sclereides

    • (B)

      Vessels

    • (C)

      Trachea

    • (D)

      Tracheids (Fibers)

  3. Q1(3)

    Sacrum is formed by the fusion of anterior ‾.

    • (A)

      Two bones

    • (B)

      Three bones

    • (C)

      Four bones

    • (D)

      Five bones

  4. Q1(4)

    The sensation of equilibrium is produced by

    • (A)

      Chemoreceptors

    • (B)

      Mechanoreceptors

    • (C)

      Photoreceptors

    • (D)

      Nocioreceptors

  5. Q1(5)

    Auxins promote growth of roots from

    • (A)

      Galls

    • (B)

      Tumor

    • (C)

      Primary root

    • (D)

      Cuttings

  6. Q1(6)

    The cavity formed between somatic and splanchnic mesoderm is

    • (A)

      Archenteron

    • (B)

      Hensen’s Node

    • (C)

      Coelom

    • (D)

      Neurocoel

  7. Q1(7)

    The number of chromosomes in frog is

    • (A)

      26

    • (B)

      20

    • (C)

      32

    • (D)

      46

  8. Q1(8)

    Each Okazaki fragment is synthesized by

    • (A)

      DNA polymerase I

    • (B)

      DNA polymerase II

    • (C)

      DNA polymerase III

    • (D)

      Helicase

  9. Q1(9)

    For the formation of phragmoplast, the vesicle originates from

    • (A)

      ER

    • (B)

      Golgi Complex

    • (C)

      Chloroplast

    • (D)

      Mitochondria

  10. Q1(10)

    ABO blood group system was discovered in

    • (A)

      1900

    • (B)

      1901

    • (C)

      1902

    • (D)

      1903

  11. Q1(11)

    Example of Long-day plant is

    • (A)

      Cabbage

    • (B)

      Tomato

    • (C)

      Cotton

    • (D)

      Soya bean

  12. Q1(12)

    Cystic fibrosis patients lack gene that codes for transmembrane carrier of the

    • (A)

      Na+ ions

    • (B)

      Cl− ions

    • (C)

      Ca++ ions

    • (D)

      K+ ions

  13. Q1(13)

    A probe is a single stranded nucleotide sequence that will hybridize into certain piece of

    • (A)

      RNA

    • (B)

      Carbohydrate

    • (C)

      DNA

    • (D)

      Amino Acids

  14. Q1(14)

    Alfred Wallace developed a theory of natural selection essentially identical to

    • (A)

      Linnaeus

    • (B)

      Lamarck

    • (C)

      Darwin

    • (D)

      Mendel

  15. Q1(15)

    The relationship between insects and flowering plants is the example of

    • (A)

      Parasitism

    • (B)

      Predation

    • (C)

      Mutualism

    • (D)

      Commensalism

  16. Q1(16)

    In temperate grassland, the rate of primary production is about (g/m2)

    • (A)

      700–1400

    • (B)

      700–1600

    • (C)

      700–1800

    • (D)

      700–1500

  17. Q1(17)

    Establishment of new forests, where no forests existed before is called

    • (A)

      Deforestation

    • (B)

      Desertification

    • (C)

      Afforestation

    • (D)

      Reforestation

Subjective

Printed marks: 68 · Time: 2:40 Hours

Note: Section I is compulsory. Attempt any THREE (3) questions from Section II.

SECTION-I

  1. Q2

    Write short answers to any EIGHT (8) questions.

  2. Q2(i)

    What are the adaptations of Hydrophytes?

    (2 marks)
  3. Q2(ii)

    What are contractile vacuoles? Write down their role.

    (2 marks)
  4. Q2(iii)

    How Kangaroo rat survives in desert?

    (2 marks)
  5. Q2(iv)

    Compare sclerenchyma with collenchyma.

    (2 marks)
  6. Q2(v)

    Give two main types of plant movements.

    (2 marks)
  7. Q2(vi)

    How pollen tube helps plants in land adaptations?

    (2 marks)
  8. Q2(vii)

    Define climacteric. What is its cause?

    (2 marks)
  9. Q2(viii)

    Differentiate between weather and climate.

    (2 marks)
  10. Q2(ix)

    What is meant by productivity of an aquatic ecosystem?

    (2 marks)
  11. Q2(x)

    What is nutation?

    (2 marks)
  12. Q2(xi)

    How would you define environment?

    (2 marks)
  13. Q2(xii)

    What is nutrient cycle? Which is the driving force behind these cycles?

    (2 marks)
  14. Q3

    Write short answers to any EIGHT (8) questions.

  15. Q3(i)

    Why progesterone is a constituent of birth control pill?

    (2 marks)
  16. Q3(ii)

    Define Nissl’s granules?

    (2 marks)
  17. Q3(iii)

    What is the function of parathyroids?

    (2 marks)
  18. Q3(iv)

    Define true breeding varieties.

    (2 marks)
  19. Q3(v)

    How blood pressure is a multifactorial trait?

    (2 marks)
  20. Q3(vi)

    What is SRY gene? How it is transferred?

    (2 marks)
  21. Q3(vii)

    Give cause and treatment of cystic fibrosis patients.

    (2 marks)
  22. Q3(viii)

    What are palindromic sequences?

    (2 marks)
  23. Q3(ix)

    What are Bioreactors?

    (2 marks)
  24. Q3(x)

    What is Biome? Write names of some biomes.

    (2 marks)
  25. Q3(xi)

    Define Biosphere and Habitat.

    (2 marks)
  26. Q3(xii)

    Distinguish between Autecology and Synecology.

    (2 marks)
  27. Q4

    Write short answers to any SIX (6) questions.

  28. Q4(i)

    What are Neoblasts? How they are important in Regeneration?

    (2 marks)
  29. Q4(ii)

    Compare epiblast and hypoblast regarding development of chick.

    (2 marks)
  30. Q4(iii)

    What is promoter on DNA template strand? Write down two binding sites within the promoter.

    (2 marks)
  31. Q4(iv)

    How do specific amino acids bind with their respective tRNAs?

    (2 marks)
  32. Q4(v)

    What is a Nucleosome? What type of charges are there on the two components of Nucleosomes?

    (2 marks)
  33. Q4(vi)

    Write down two differences between Benign and Malignant tumor.

    (2 marks)
  34. Q4(vii)

    How is cytokinesis in plant cells different from that of animal cells?

    (2 marks)
  35. Q4(viii)

    Write down two measures to protect endangered species of an area.

    (2 marks)
  36. Q4(ix)

    Briefly write about Neo Darwinism.

    (2 marks)

SECTION-II

  1. Q5
    (8 marks)
    1. (a)

      Write down a note on excretion in cockroach with the help of labelled diagram.

      (4 marks)
    2. (b)

      Define mitosis. Describe various stages of Karyokinesis in animal cells.

      (4 marks)
  2. Q6
    (8 marks)
    1. (a)

      Define secondary growth. Explain its significance.

      (4 marks)
    2. (b)

      Discuss mutualism and commensalism with one example each.

      (4 marks)
  3. Q7
    (8 marks)
    1. (a)

      Describe the endosymbiont hypothesis in support of evolution.

      (4 marks)
    2. (b)

      Explain the commercial applications of Auxins and Gibberellins.

      (4 marks)
  4. Q8
    (8 marks)
    1. (a)

      Discuss sexually transmitted diseases in humans.

      (4 marks)
    2. (b)

      Describe the genetics of colour blindness in man

      (4 marks)
  5. Q9
    (8 marks)
    1. (a)

      How do light and temperature affect plant growth?

      (4 marks)
    2. (b)

      What are the key components required for successful PCR reaction and explain their role.

      (4 marks)
Original source references (2)

The original files and numbering are retained. Equivalent files do not repeat the questions above.

  • Objective · 8461 · Printed marks: 17 · Time: 20 Minutes
  • Subjective · psp_5754e693329897a9e4c838d21b0553c3 · Printed marks: 68 · Time: 2:40 Hours